From: Ted Mann (theomann@earthlink.net)
Date: Sat May 26 2001 - 15:57:06 EDT
Is it entirely unreasonable to translate this as: "Repent... and be
baptized... into [i.e., into the condition of] the forgiveness of sins..."?
Ted
Dr. Theodore H. Mann
theomann@earthlink.net
http://home.earthlink.net/~theomann
----- Original Message -----
From: "Wayne Leman" <Wayne_Leman@SIL.ORG>
To: "Biblical Greek" <b-greek@franklin.oit.unc.edu>
Sent: Saturday, May 26, 2001 1:45 PM
Subject: [b-greek] Acts 2:38
>
> ----- Original Message -----
> From: "Glenn Blank" <glennblank@earthlink.net>
>
>
> >
> >
> > >> --- "Matthew R. Miller" <biblicalscribe@hotmail.com>
> > >> wrote:
> > >> > It is my understanding that the phrase "eis aphesin
> > >> > twn hamartiwn" in Acts
> > >> > 2:38 must be translated "unto the remission of your
> > >> > sins"
> >
> > >From: "Wayne Leman" <Wayne_Leman@SIL.ORG>
> > >Date: Fri, 25 May 2001 21:06:06 -0600
> > >
> > >But what does that mean? I've heard it often since childhood, but it
> > doesn't
> > >make sense to me in my dialect of English. I'm happy not to have
> "because"
> > >since there is no hOTI, but it seems to me we need some other English
> > >translation to understand the meaning of the Greek phrase.
> > >
> >
> > "for the remission of your sins" (as translated in the KJV, NKJV, NIV,
> RSV,
> > and others) works for me -- as meaning "unto the end that your sins be
> > remitted" Passages that establish a clear precedent for such a telic
> usage
> > of EIS include Mark 1:38, John 18:37, and I John 3:8. Of course, these
> > passages are of the construction [. . . EIS TI hINA <clause>] rather
than
> > [. . . EIS <noun phrase>] as we have in Acts 2:38. However, a number of
> > other passages which are of the type [. . . EIS <NP>], such as
Philippians
> > 1:11, Romans 8:15, Romans 3:25, and John 4:14, also seem to carry a
telic
> > force -- either "for the purpose of" or "with the result of"
> >
> > glenn blank
> > Pensacola, FL
>
> Glenn, thanks much for responding. In my dialect of English, I don't
> understand "unto the end that your sins be remitted" either, but I would
> understand the following, which I'm guessing is related to your mention of
> telic force:
>
> "so that your sins will be remitted/forgiven"
> "with the result that your sins will be remitted/forgiven"
>
> In your dialect of English, would either or both of these phrases be
> equivalent to the meaning you understand from "unto the end that your sins
> be remitted"?
>
> Ordinary English speaker,
> Wayne
> ---
> Wayne Leman
> Bible translation site: http://www.geocities.com/bible_translation/
> >
>
>
>
> ---
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