From: Richard Allan Stauch (RStauch@worldnet.att.net)
Date: Wed Jul 04 2001 - 15:57:13 EDT
-----Original Message-----
From: Carl W. Conrad [mailto:cwconrad@artsci.wustl.edu]
Sent: Wednesday, July 04, 2001 10:11 AM
>I've always thought that this construction was a Latinism in Greek. Here's
>a message I sent five years ago regarding it:
[Snip]
>>[I]t's not really a straight indirect question in standard Greek.
>>Ironically, however, the Latin indirect question does appear to be
>>constructed on the basis of the deliberative subjunctive: NON HABET UBI
>>CAPUT DEPONAT. Which raises an interesting (to me, at least) question:
>>there have, I know, been investigations of Latin vocabulary in the GNT, as
>>in Mark's gospel; does anyone know whether there's been a study of
>>_Latinisms_ in Koine Greek?
Dear Prof. Conrad,
Well, that is very interesting. I had always wondered if Mark might not have
been originally written in Latin (considering what Eusebius has to say about
its creation). To your knowledge, has anyone ever conclusively determined if
Mark was:
1- Written in Latin, then translated into Greek (Latin MS lost)
2- Written in Greek, but carrying Latinisms into it
3- Neither of the above?
That would be very helpful to my work (I have set myself a book project,
which is stalled for want of deeper study).
Also, how do we answer John's use, which I pasted earlier? Would that also
be an example of the same kind of Latinism? I always believed John wrote in
Greek, but I could be wrong about that. Yet, if he didn't, it would be
easier to believe he originally wrote in Aramaic, and it would have to be
translated into Greek (again, MS lost). It would be harder to believe that
John would have written in Latin than to believe the same of Mark.
I suppose that, with the mix of Roman influence over the previous centuries,
Latinisms may have crept into various localized Greek "schools" where Latin
had gained stronger footholds. We see this sort of thing in the modern era:
My sister learned textbook Spanish in high school, earned a scholarship
abroad, and found herself linguistically lost in Equador. Local
colloquialisms (from native Indian languages) had crept into the Spanish,
creating a very funny situation for my sister. It turns out there are many
forms of Spanish, worldwide, and each one carries these localized
idiosyncrasies. And look at what has happened to Tagalog, in the
Philippines: With so many Spanish and English loan-words, it is hard to
believe they survived until Magellan arrived (said, tongue in cheek).
Perhaps this same phenomenon was true in the 1st-Century Greek-speaking
world?
What sort of work has been done on that question? I am particularly
interested in the Galilean Greek of the 1st Century, of course.
Thanks again,
Richard Allan Stauch
Long Beach, CA
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