[b-greek] RE: Acc subject of Infinitive

From: Daniel L. Christiansen (dlc@multnomah.edu)
Date: Sat Jul 14 2001 - 14:12:52 EDT


c stirling bartholomew wrote [snipped]:

> Need to verify this for a little project I am working on. So would
> appreciate insight from one of the big greeks on this question.

    Clay, my ancestry is Norwegian, and I weigh in at about 180, so I'm
technically
not a big Greek. But, maybe I can weigh in on the discussion, as well.

> Matt. 8:22 TOUS NEKROUS (first instance)
> Is this the subject of QAYAI? Is it also the object of AFES?

    I would say that, yes, TOUS NEKROUS is the "subject" of QAYAI. The
dead are
those who are envisioned as performing the action of QAYAI. However, I
think that
it would be better to see the entire infinitive phrase as a complement
to AFES,
rather than trying to locate a specific object for the verb. That is my
opinion,
and possibly a minority one, but it seems to handle the lexical
requirements of
AFIHMI better than an "object."

> Matt 8:28 TINA
> Is this the subject of ISCUEIN or PARELQEIN or both?

    TINA is certainly the "subject" of PARELQEIN, here: it is the TINA
who is
considered as performing the action of PARELQEIN. Whether it is the
"subject" of
ISCUEIN, is a matter of debate. 1) You could take it as such, and then
treat
PARELQEIN as a complentary infinitive, thus leaving TINA in a
once-removed
relationship to PARELQEIN. "A person could not pass by that way." I
don't think
this handles the first infinitive and the negative as well as it could.
    Alternatively (and I think this is best, myself), you could
understand ISCUEIN
as an impersonal infinitive, without a stated "subject," leaving TINA
for PARELQEIN
alone. "It was not possible for anyone to pass by that way." I think
this deals
with all the constituents appropriately.

Daniel
--
Daniel L. Christiansen
Professor of Biblical Languages, Portland Bible College
Adjunct, Multnomah Bible College and Biblical Seminary
(503) 820-0231



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