From: Ted Mann (theomann@earthlink.net)
Date: Sat Jul 14 2001 - 14:55:50 EDT
I know that the absence of an article in Greek does not necessarily call for
the use of the indefinite article in translation. However, are there
occasions when it is reasonable (or at least acceptable) to use either the
definite or indefinite articles in translation when the Greek has the
definite article? For example, in Mt. 5:1, I notice that the NIV translates
ANEBH EIS TO OROS as "..he went up on a mountainside.." Does this
accurately reflect the Greek, or would the readers of the gospel have
understood this to be "THE mountainside ("mountain," "hill," etc.)"?
Many thanks.
Ted
Dr. Theodore H. Mann
theomann@earthlink.net
http://home.earthlink.net/~theomann
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