From: Nelson D. Kloosterman (ndk@jorsm.com)
Date: Mon Jul 16 2001 - 21:58:29 EDT
I was unable to access the B-Greek archives, so I will regret it if this
question is redundant.
The Greek of 1 Cor. 1:25 reads:
hOTI TO MWRON TOU QEOU SOFWTERON TWN ANQRWPWN ESTIN KAI TO ASQENES TOU QEOU
ISXUROTERON TWN ANQRWPWN.
Given the frequency within the preceding context of 1 Cor. 1:18-24 of
speaking about "wisdom" and "foolishness," may we properly understand an
ellipsis in 1:25, so as to mean:
hOTI TO MWRON TOU QEOU SOFWTERON _THS SOFIAS_ TWN ANQRWPWN ESTIN KAI TO
ASQENES TOU QEOU ISXUROTERON _THS DUNAMEWS_ TWN ANQRWPWN.
In both clauses, the genitive TWN ANQRWPWN without the ellipsis I take to
be a genitive of comparison, but with the ellipsis to be a genitive of
possession.
Is it necessary, or simply permissible, to assume an ellipsis here?
Nelson D. Kloosterman
Professor of Ethics and New Testament
Mid-America Reformed Seminary
Dyer, IN
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