[b-greek] Re: A question on Philippians 4

From: Brian Swedburg (brian@discoveryhills.org)
Date: Wed Jul 25 2001 - 12:46:53 EDT


On 7/26/01 1:11 AM, "Peter Osborne." <s351016@student.uq.edu.au> wrote:

> Hi,
> a question on Philippians 4:5:
>
> it states - ...TO EPIEIKES hUMWN GNWSQHTW PASIN ANQRWPOIS.
>
> I'm a novice, so I hope I've got the characters right !
>
> As far as I can establish GNWSQHTW is aorist, passive, imperative, second
> person, plural.
> I would appreciate comments on how best to translate this. The passive,
> imperative, second person, plural bit is straight forward enough, but the
> difficulty for me is with the aorist. To me the aorist must have some
> significance because GINWSKW crops up again in v6. In this case it is, I
> think, the same form but not an aorist.
>
> Peter.
>
>
>
>
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Greetings Peter and list,
    I think that Carl and Jonathan have covered the issues of parsing and
the potential significance of the aspect of the verbs. What I would note is
the author's apparently intentional contrastive use of an imperative form of
the verb twice. The congregation at Philippi is to let it's gentleness be
known to one another (presumably in such tensions mentioned in 4:2 and
implied in 2: 2-4), and it's anxieties (relational included?) should be made
known to God.
    I draw attention to this in light of Mark Wilson's thoughts in this
dialogue. In light of both Paul's expressions of praying in a continuous or
regular manner in 1:3, and the implication that regular anxieties would
elicit regular prayer, I can appreciate the continuous aspect of GNORIZESQW.
Yet, why should the aorist call to gentleness be different?

Student,
Brian Swedburg


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