From: Carl W. Conrad (cwconrad@artsci.wustl.edu)
Date: Wed Nov 14 2001 - 08:15:50 EST
At 11:58 AM +0100 11/14/01, Iver Larsen wrote:
>Rick Duggin said:
>> I was taught that there are three ways in which Greek and Latin
>> writers emphasize a word:
>> 1. Put it at the beginning of a sentence or clause.
>> 2. Put it at the end of a sentence or clause.
>> 3. Insert modifiers between the adjective (or article in Greek) and
>> its noun.
>>
>> If a Greek writer shows emphasis by separating the noun from its
>> adjective,
>> would he show MORE emphasis by increasing the number of modifiers?
>> E.g., "...THE outward of arranging the hair, and of wearing gold, or of
>> putting on of apparel ADORNMENT."
>>
>> Surely this extended separation of article and noun gives greater
>> emphasis than hO KRUPTOS THS KARDIAS ANQRWPOS in verse 4; or am I
>> totally off the wall?
>>
>> Thanks in advance for your comments.
>
>Let me offer my personal view which may be controversial.
>I think you are pretty much off the wall, but blame it to your teachers.
>Point 1) above is correct but needs to be used with care. It also applies to
>the beginning of a phrase, but there are many factors involved, such as word
>class, semantic content of verb, verb forms, author style, potential for
>word order alterations etc.
>Point 2) is advocated by some, but I am fairly confident that it does not
>apply to Greek. It applies to English and it works in English because we do
>not have the same free word order as in Greek.
>Point 3) makes little sense as it is stated. What it tries to do is to
>address the case when a modifier that might as well follow the head of the
>noun phrase precedes the head. But it addresses the question without
>understanding what is going on, and therefore needs to be stated
>differently. Point 3) is an sub-point under the general principle of point
>1) after point 1) has been expanded to include "or phrase".
Just a quibble, no more than that: #2 is certainly right in Latin, and even
if it is not commonly the case in Koine Greek, I'm not convinced that it
isn't sometimes the case: Iver has left the door open, if only by a crack,
to "author style", and Greek is a language shaped in its actual use by
school-trained writers to govern their writing by rhetorical principles
rather than solely by ordindary speech patterns of word-order. I don't mean
to say this will ordinarily vitiate the principles of frontal prominence
that Iver has been pushing, but I think that idiosyncracies of particular
writers does need to be taken into account
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