From: Steven Lo Vullo (doulos@merr.com)
Date: Sat Dec 01 2001 - 01:04:19 EST
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On Thursday, November 29, 2001, at 07:42 AM, Iver Larsen wrote:
> Excuse me for not having a copy of Wallace. My question is: Does he
> recognize the use of the Greek article which corresponds to a relative
> pronoun in English?
No, Iver, at least not in any way that could apply to Luke 18.13. First
of all, he establishes some very specific parameters for understanding
the article as having the *force* of a relative pronoun. It is confined,
in his opinion, to the use of the article with second and third
attributive positions in which the modifier is not an adjective, i.e.,
when it is (a) a genitive phrase (as in 1 Cor 1.18), (b) a prepositional
phrase (as in Matt 6:9), or (c) a participle (as in Mark 4:15).
Secondly, he is very careful to point out that he thinks this is NOT a
Greek way of looking at things, but an English way:
"To say that the article is functioning like a relative pronoun is only
an English way of looking at the matter. Thus it is not truly the
semantic force of the article. The article is still dependent on a noun
or other substantive. It typically bears an anaphoric force, pointing
back to the substantive with which it has concord. We translate it as a
relative pronoun because this is less cumbersome than something like
'our Father, the [one] in heaven.'"
=============
Steven Lo Vullo
Madison, WI
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