From: Polycarp66@aol.com
Date: Mon Jan 28 2002 - 18:31:30 EST
In a message dated 1/28/2002 5:53:56 PM Eastern Standard Time,
cassian@dellepro.com writes:
>I wouldn't agree that a nominative participle would "more normally express
>the accompanying circumstance." That's good for beginning Greek, but I'm
>tyring to arrive at more nuanced understanding. I don't think participles
>were predominently used to express vague attendant circumstances--but that's
>getting away from the issue at hand. In any event, the participle--in the
>nominative quite often--can be used to express purpose. Classically it was a
>future participle, but the present participle used telically is not unknown.
>Wallace has several NT examples on pp. 635-637; see Smyth 2065.
As you note, the classical usage was for the future participle to express
purpose. This is what Smyth 2065 states. I not infrequently find myself not
entirely agreeing with Wallace. I'm afraid that this is one of those
occasions. His citation of Lk 13.7 as a usage of the present participle to
express purpose is surely very weak. It is not the purpose of the coming but
rather the attendent circumstance of the coming. Similarly, Jn 12.33. It is
not the purpose of signifying how he would die but rather by saying it he
thereby signified . . . I remain unconvinced that any purpose is illustrated
by any of his examples other than those that would fall under Smyth 2065.
gfsomsel
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