From: Polycarp66@aol.com
Date: Sat Feb 23 2002 - 22:33:29 EST
In a message dated 2/23/2002 8:49:46 PM Eastern Standard Time,
Polycarp66@aol.com writes:
In a message dated 2/23/2002 12:40:49 PM Eastern Standard Time,
Don1hendrix@aol.com writes:
>>>The Greek people used #1 for a generator of numbers. Did the Apostles? If
>>>they did would not Chilia be 2,000 or more tather than the often
>>>prescribed 1,000?
And polycarp66@aol.com responds:
>>Huh??! I'm not sure what you're trying to say - that CILIA* = 2,000?
Could
>>you please clarify this?
In a message dated 2/23/2002 9:28:17 PM Eastern Standard Time,
Don1hendrix@aol.com clarifies:
>That is what I meant to say Thank You
________________________________
I hardly think that could be correct. Consider Rev. 11.3
KAI DWSW TOIS DUSIN MARTUSIN MOU KAI PROFHTEUSOUSIN hHMERAS XILIAS DIADOSIAS
hECHKONTA PERIBEBLHMENOI SAKKOUS
I chose this because I think part of your problem is with the fact that the
word has a plural form. The other reason I chose it is because it has no
adjective modifying it to specify how many thousands. I would suggest that
it is plural because the concept of 1,000 is inherently plural. Although we
would say ONE thousand, this does not indicate that Greek-speakers would of
necessity put it in this fashion (though they might also do that as well on
occassion).
Due to the temporal schema of the Apocalypse this MUST be ONE thousand. It
is half of the period during which the temple is to be trodden under foot by
the gentiles.
gfsomsel
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