From: Mark Wilson (emory2oo2@hotmail.com)
Date: Wed Mar 27 2002 - 18:37:22 EST
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Hrubi:
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>Now comes the possibility, that Mark 16:9 says "After He had arisen, on
>the first day of the week He appeared to Mary..." The grammatical
>structure in Greek indicates that the phrase, the first day of the week
>indicates when He appeared to Mary, not when He arose. Mark simply states
>that 'After He arose....when it was the first day of the week He appeared
>to Mary'.
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So far, I'm not sure what the question is. Nothing in Mark 16:9
indicates Jesus rose on Saturday. Are you saying the this Marcan
passage does not address WHEN he arose? If so, then it would
seem that a question as to WHEN he arose excludes this Marcan
passage from consideration.... and yet, you seem to be asking
WHEN he arose BASED ON this passage. Did I misread your question?
Mark Wilson
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