From: Mark Wilson (emory2oo2@hotmail.com)
Date: Wed Apr 03 2002 - 21:30:11 EST
<x-flowed>
Poly:
----
>hWS DE HN EN TOIS hIEROSOLUMOIS EN TWi PASXA . . .
>
> My question is in regard to John 2:23 as to the use of the dative
>plural
>of the
>word Jerusalem in the Greek text. Why is this in the plural form?
----
You may want to put this into your geewhiz file, but the city
Sardis is often pluralized SARDEIS because it was originally
built on a high plateau, as the city grew, additional construction
began on the lower regions. Over time, the acropolis was used
less and less. In effect, you then had two cities, and hence, Sardis
was pluralized to SARDEIS. A similar history surrounds AQENAI,
which even looks plural to us... AthenS.
Mark Wilson
_________________________________________________________________
Chat with friends online, try MSN Messenger: http://messenger.msn.com
---
B-Greek home page: http://metalab.unc.edu/bgreek
You are currently subscribed to b-greek as: [jwrobie@mindspring.com]
To unsubscribe, forward this message to leave-b-greek-327Q@franklin.oit.unc.edu
To subscribe, send a message to subscribe-b-greek@franklin.oit.unc.edu
</x-flowed>
This archive was generated by hypermail 2.1.4 : Sat Apr 20 2002 - 15:37:23 EDT