The problem with this is that we DON'T KNOW exactly what Paul's concerns
and theology were because He has not categorically stated them. What we
do have is several OCCASIONAL letters that Paul wrote in order to
encourage,
and in some cases chastise the churches. 2 Tim is different from other
Pauline letters because it is written to an individual and personal
friend
of Paul's not a church group. This must be taken into account but rarely
is.
The stylistic arguement is quite invalid. Authors can use different
styles
for different purposes eg. If you read a letter I wrote to a friend and
compared it with a spec I wrote at work, you would notice that the
writing style, vocabulary, subject matter would all be completely
different but you couldn't conclude they were written by different
authors! Authors also CHANGE their style. eg. Picasso changed style
many times through his lifetime - although Picasso was a painter not a
writer I think the point is the same.
Therefore it seems premature to dismiss Pauline authorship on these
grounds.
2 Tim. 1:1, says Paul wrote it - why doubt it if there is no concrete
evidence to the contrary?
> As for the KAI being emphatic, the view Edgar espouses is evidently that
> there is an implicit ESTI, that QEOPNEUSTOS is attributive with GRAFH, and
> that KAI WFELIMOS PROS DIDASKALIAN KTL. is predicative; if one construes
> the elements that way, then KAI is adverbial with the predicate of the
> sentence: "All scripture (that is) divinely-inspired (is) also useful for
> instruction etc." If, however, one reads QEOPNEUSTOS as predicative, then
> KAI WFELIMOS KTL. will be additional to the predicate, and we read: "All
> scripture (is) divinely-inspired and useful for ..." There's nothing in
> the Greek text that points unambiguously in favor of either of these two
> readings; since the ESTI is implied rather than expressed, there's no way
> to be sure that one of those adjectives is attributive while the other is
> predicative or that both adjectives are predicative.
>
But if Paul meant to say "All scripture (that is) divinely-inspired (is)
also
useful for instruction etc." implying that not every scripture is
inspired then
why didn't he tell Timothy which ones are inspired and which aren't?
He's
supposed to be helping Tim out here...
> In sum, I think it has to be admitted that this is one passage where one's
> theological presuppositions are likely to govern one's preference regarding
> construction of the words in the clause.
Actually, I think it's more a case of our HISTORICAL PRESUPPOSITIONS
rather
than theological ones...
cheers,
Andrew
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| Andrew S. Kulikovsky B.App.Sc(Hons) MACS
|
| Software Engineer (CelsiusTech Australia)
| & Theology Student (MA - Pacific College)
| Adelaide, Australia
| ph: +618 8281 0919 fax: +618 8281 6231
| email: killer@cobweb.com.au
|
| Check out my Biblical Hermeneutics web page:
| http://www.geocities.com/Athens/5948/hermeneutics.htm
|
| What's the point of gaining everything this world has
| to offer, if you lose your own life in the end?
|
| ...Look to Jesus Christ
|
| hO IESOUS KURIOS!
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