In the last digest I received I read this comment.
My paraphrase (I know no Y'shua as the Name in Greek is IHSOUS). This may be
so, but what about the fact that English translations of the same word in the
LXX translate it as Joshua. Isn't there some discrepancy here and should we
not be consistent in translating? One Greek word that is A Name, so why do we
give the word TWO names? If we were consistent in translating or
transliterating, etc. we would use Joshua, Yahshua or the correct variant
would we not? The reason being, this was the older meaning of IHSOUS, and
besides, is not Jesus a form of Latin. I think the context of the land and
nation He lived in would cause us to be true to the names used in that land
and nation. They were not Greeks, Latins, Germans, etc, they were, for lack
of a better term, Israelis, no? What is the basic meaning of the word IHSOUS
anyway. Joshua is supposed to be Yah is Salvation, or close to that. What
does IHSOUS mean if not the same. Thus, if it does, then would we not use the
LXX translation Joshua even in the New Testament? Just a thought.
And, I would like to know still, what implications are there to Him speaking
Greek, or Aramaic or Hebrew? There must be some better point to what language
He spoke than just arguing over what we do not have complete information on
yet.
All the best to you all.
Robert J. Petry, C.L.
Codesix4@aol.com