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Re: Gospel of Mark and EUQUS

Stephen C. Carlson wrote:

> At 05:50  6/7/97 -0500, Eric Weiss wrote:
> >Are there any Marcan scholars/students out there who can
> >support/clarify/critique/comment on this suggestion of Mark using
> EUQUS
> >for Greek IDOU and Hebrew HiNNeH? My speculation is NOT based on
> lengthy
> >study, and I'm only a "little Greek."
>
> I don't know how to coordinate Mark's EUQUS with a Hebrew word,
> because
> it is unlikely that Mark was translated directly from a Hebrew
> document
> or that the author was very conversant in Hebrew.
>
> As for Gk. IDOU, I think that Matthew's parallels can be of help.
> There are about 60 instances of the word IDOU in Mt, usually as KAI
> IDOU, and only two correspond to a EUQUS in Mark, at 15:22 and 26:47.
> Thus, if Matthew used Mark, then he obviously did not feel that IDOU
> is a replacement for EUQUS.  On the other hand, if Mark used Matthew
> (so Griesbach, Augustine), Mark did not feel that EUQUS is a
> replacement
> for IDOU.
>
> In my reading of these words, they seem to be used in different
> situations.  Mt tends to use IDOU to introduce a person or an event.
> Mk tends to use EUQUS to connect actions.
>
> Stephen Carlson
> --
> Stephen C. Carlson                   : Poetry speaks of aspirations,
> scarlson@mindspring.com              : and songs chant the words.
> http://www.mindspring.com/~scarlson/ :               -- Shujing 2.35

As you know from my post, this was a "hunch," based on only brief study,
from a "very little Greek," so I appreciate all your responses. A
question, though: Even if Mark does use EUQUS to connect actions, if he
does it primarily to draw attention to the action, even if secondarily
to mean that it happened "immediately" following or during what had just
previously occurred - or even if NOT to mean that it happened
immediately, but only to draw attention to it - wouldn't that support my
guess/conjecture that Mark sometimes uses EUQUS like the other
synopticists use IDOU, or like the writers of the Old Testament used
HiNNeH? Even if Mark wasn't conversant in Hebrew, would the LXX usage of
IDOU for HiNNeH be in his mind? I've only just completed a year of
Hebrew, but I noticed the HiNNeH usages in the passages we were reading
and Mark's EUQUS seemed to be similar at times - hence my original
query.

[An aside: Robert (?) Lindsay (Lindsey?) and/or Roy Blizzard argue for a
Hebrew original behind Mark (read Lindsay's "Jesus: Rabbi and Lord" and
Blizzard's "The Difficult Words of Jesus"), I believe, but I raised that
issue a couple years ago here, and the arguments for a Hebrew original
are not accepted by most who have studied the subject.]

--
"Eric S. (and Karol-Ann) Weiss"
part-time grad student at The Criswell College
http://home1.gte.net/eweiss/index.htm
"Send those testimonies!"
eweiss@gte.net
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