>Greek writings? Is there any Greek writing where in the same sentence
or
>clause an anarthrous noun is the subject and an articular noun is the
>predicate nominative?
I am really interested in the answer to this! So far, I haven't noticed
any
exceptions in my reading, but my antenae may not have been on the right
frequency to notice.
This will be hotly contested, but how about Phil 2:13?
For God is the One acting within YOU for the sake of his good
pleasure....
QEOS GAR ESTIN hO ENERGWN ...
Sincerely,
Wes