Paul Dixon wrote:
>>>In a sentence or clause containing an
>>>articular noun and an anarthrous noun (such as in Jn 1:1c, but not
>>>1:18) the rule is that the subject is denoted by the articular noun. Can
>>>anybody give me an exception to this rule in the Greek NT? LXX? Other
>>>Greek writings? Is there any Greek writing where in the same sentence or
>>>clause an anarthrous noun is the subject and an articular noun is the
>>>predicate nominative?
Jonathan Robie wrote:
>>I am really interested in the answer to this! So far, I haven't noticed
>>any exceptions in my reading, but my antenae may not have been on the right
>>frequency to notice.
Wes Williams wrote:
> This will be hotly contested, but how about Phil 2:13?
>
>For God is the One acting within YOU for the sake of his good
>pleasure....
>
>QEOS GAR ESTIN hO ENERGWN ...
So what exactly do we mean by "the subject"? I'm afraid I need a formalism
here, because my intuition is failing me...if I write it like this, QEOS
feels like the subject:
QEOS GAR ESTIN hO ENERGWN EN hUMIN KAI TO QELEIN KAI O ENERGEIN hUPER THS
EUDOKIAS
But if I just change the word order a little, hO ENERGWN feels like the subject:
hO ENERGWN GAR EN hUMIN KAI TO QELEIN KAI O ENERGEIN hUPER THS EUDOKIAS QEOS
ESTIN
Now I'm pretty sure that there is a formal definition for subject that might
give us some clarity here...and that one of the many linguist types out
there can bail us out of this!
Jonathan
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