In this case in 1 John, if it were translated, "he departs," I would
see a reference back to the concept in 1 John 2:9, where the man thinks
he is in the light, but is not. He doesn't know where he is departing,
since his eyes are blinded and he thinks he's ok. What do you all
think? Is this translation permissable? Or should I be hesitant to
use it for some reason I do not see?
BTW, Jonathan, it appears to me that verses 7 & 8 of chapter 2 support
your notes in the past concerning conflicting statements in the book.
We have to continually fight the tendency to soften these statements so
that the points that he is making can continue to have their "shock
effect." Of course, we note as you have that these statements do not
make John undecided in the points that he is making.
XARIS hUMIN,
Paul
Paul and Dee Zellmer, Jimmy Guingab
Ibanag Translation Project
Cabagan, Philippines
zellmer@faith.edu.ph