>
> Simply because the vox ipsissima Iesu was Aramaic and not Greek.
>
so what?
> > The (incredibly well documented) canon of scripture we have is the
> > inspired
> > word of God not some theoretical reconstruction...
>
> Are you saying that the Greek-speaking Matthean author was
> "inspired"moreso than the Aramaic speaking Jesus?
>
Not at all - it just that we don't have Jesus actual words (other than
potentially wrong reconstructions) so why not stick to the inspired,
inerrant (in my view) words we do have?
cheers,
Andrew