When I wrote to the group the article entitled "John 1:1 QEOS definitely
definite?" I was unaware of the existence of the long running thread,
and, since I had not found this thread in the archives of the group, I
was also unaware of the voluminous discussion which had already taken
place. After I posted the original article, Jonathan Robie was kind
enough to tell me about and to e-mail me the digests of these
discussions.
To those not happy about my causing a rehash of old stuff, I apologize.
However, in reading the many points of view it seems perfectly clear to
me now that QEOS in John 1:1c (a) is definite; (b) is indefinite; (c) is
neither definite nor indefinite but qualitative; (d) is qualitative and
indefinite; and that "the Word is a god" (a) isdefinitely a
grammatically possible translation; (b) is definitely a grammatical
impossibility.
Have I got it right yet? :)
-- MONWi SOFWi THEWi, DIA IHSOU CRISTOU, hWi hH DOXA EIS TOUS AIWNAS TWN AIWN; AMHN. Romans 16:27 But thanks to you as well.