>Mark 2:15 KAI GINETAI KATAKEISQAI...
>
>How is the infinitive functioning here? From the flow of the context I want
>to translate the phrase as "and he was reclining"--but that doesn't fit any
>typical patterns of infinitive useage that I recall. I note that the NIV
>translates it temporally: "when he was reclining"--but I don't think of
>other infinitives used temporally without a preposition (META, EN, PRO,
>etc.).
>
Rod,
I would agree that the temporal infinitive usually has a preposition (PRO
TOU, PRIN, PRIN hH, EN TWi, META TO, hEWS TOU, etc.). The use in Mk 2:15,
I think, would be better described as the inf. as object of the verb
GINETAI which means something like "It came to pass that . . ." A close
eg. to it is in John 12: 29, "The crowd which stood and heard said that it
had thundered (lit. "that thunder had happened."). This last eg. could
also be seen as the inf. in indirect discourse. The function is very close
and both could be explained as objects of the verb.