Re: 1 Tim 3:10 -- why the present tense

Randy Leedy (RLEEDY@bju.edu)
Fri, 07 Nov 1997 08:18:59 -0500

>>>In discussing the qualifications of deacons, the author
of 1 Timothy says in 1 Tim 3:10

KAI hOUTOI DE DOKIMAZESQWSAN PRWTON, EITA DIAKONEITWSAN
ANEGKLHTOI ONTES
yet these too must first be tested-and-approved, then serve [as]
being irreproachable.

My question is, why does the author use present tense for
these imperatives? One would think that with "PRWTON, EITA"
at least the first of the imperatives would have "an end
point in view," as Rolf puts it, and hence naturally gravitate
toward the aorist.

Regards,
Jim Vellenga
<<<

I suspect this has already gotten an answer, but in case not, I'll
make a suggestion. I think this is a good example of an iterative
present, where the present tense, in context, indicates a repeated
action rather than a continuously ongoing one (the English synonym
geeks might appreciate "CONTINUAL rather than CONTINUOUS action").

Paul does not seem to be envisioning a single instance of approving a
group of deacons but rather an ongoing practice regarding the
selection and qualification of these officers.

****************************
In Love to God and Neighbor,
Randy Leedy
Bob Jones University
Greenville, SC
RLeedy@bju.edu
****************************