Re: POLLOI in Luke 1:1

Todd Pedlar (todd@handel.phys.nwu.edu)
Tue, 11 Nov 1997 09:14:19 -0600

Brian E. Wilson wrote:
>
> Fellow B-Greeks
>
> In Greek, how many is many, please?
>
> Does POLLOI in the opening sentence of Luke's gospel mean more than two?
> Or could it refer to two only - Mark and Matthew?

I doubt that it ever is used to mean a group of "two". I think
the Greek POLUS is always (allowing of course for that obscure
exception) used as Many - the definition seems to be quite plain.

There also is no reason to believe that "two" is meant here,
regardless of the Greek which is used in the original text.
Matthew and Mark (even if they were both written before Luke's
Gospel) and John (whether it was written before or after is
irrelevant) are hardly the only other stories of the life
of Christ which were around at the time Luke wrote. Many authors
wrote such histories - some are even extant today. Just because
it isn't in the New Testament Canon doesn't mean that the four
Gospels included are the only ones which were ever written.

> Are there any instances in Greek of POLLOI meaning only two?

I don't know of any, but then I haven't researched it - all I
will say is that it is pretty improbable, and certainly unnecessary
that it mean "two" here.

Cheers,

Todd

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Todd K. Pedlar - Northwestern Univ., Nucl. & Particle Physics
FNAL E835 Homepage: http://numep1.phys.nwu.edu/tkp.html
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