RE: Re: 2 THESS 2:2-3
chrisbabcock@erols.com
Sat, 15 Nov 1997 16:35 -0500
On Thu, 13 Nov 1997 12:39:21 +0500 Noel Maddy <ncm@biostat.hfh.edu>
>writes:
>>
>>In 1 Thess 4-5, Paul mentions the return of the Lord that believers
>>look forward to, and after that he mentions the day of the Lord -- the
>>time of tribulation. I don't want this to become a debate about
>>pre-/mid-/post-tribulationalism, but isn't it possible that the
>>Thessalonians were thinking that if they were in the tribulation that
>>they had missed the Lord's return? This would surely cause them to be
>>troubled.
>>
>>Again, please don't take this as an argument on any theological point,
>>but just an observation on what the readers may have been thinking...
Paul S. Dixon Fri, Nov 14, 1997 11:52 AM responds:
>If we take ENESTHKEN hH hMERA TOU KURIOU as "the day of the Lord has
>come," then it would seem the Thessalonians thought they had missed the
>Lord's return. If that suggests they thought they were then in the
>tribulation period, then they were wrong, as Paul goes on to explain.
>
>Before the day of the Lord comes the apostasy must come first and the man
>of lawlessness be revealed (2:3-4). These are both tribulational events.
> Since these had not transpired, then neither could the day of the Lord
>have arrived, or be "at hand." Furthermore, if they had thought the
>order of events was as you say, then they were wrong on that count, as
>well.
On what basis do you equate the day of the Lord with the day of His appearing? Without using the 'w' word about a brother where the doctrine at issue is not a cardinal one, I don't find that this text necessitates a mid- or post- tribulation rapture. A post- or a- millenialist would note that
this text doesn't even mention a rapture. The comment following 'Furthermore' is not support by the immediate context, but draws heavily upon dubious inferences from other eschatological passages.
Chris Babcock
<chrisbabcock@erols.com>