Re: Adjectives and adverbs
Ben Crick (ben.crick@argonet.co.uk)
Mon, 24 Nov 97 13:16:20
On Mon 24 Nov 97 (08:12:24), zellmer@isabela.faith.edu.ph wrote:
>áI think I have to change the interpretation that I have long held of 1
>áJohn 4:19. I was reading the passage again and suddenly realized,
>á"Hey, PROTOS is an adjective!" And here I have been treating it as an
>áadverb for more than 40 years (not all of that time in Greek, BTW). I
>áchecked out Robertson on this, and, sure enough, he calls attention to
>áthis fact in his treatment of adjectives and adverbs. However, in the
>ánext subsection, he talks about Greek adjectives that are treated like
>áadverbs in English. I looked at his examples, but still wonder how one
>á tells if he has an adjective that should be treated adverbially in my
>ánative tongue. How about this as a springboard: Why should *not*
>áPROTOS in 1 John 4:19 fall into this category? (I guess I just don't
>áwant to change a long-held position!)
Carl has given us a model answer on this one, Paul; but FWIW:
PRWTOS is the contracted form of PROTEROS, the superlative of PRO. It can
be an adverb. E.g. PARAKALW PRWTON PANTWN (1 Timothy 2:1); hEAUTOUS EDWKEN
PRWTON TWi KURIWi (2 Corinthians 8:5).
In 1 John 4:19 all the translations I have seen treat it is an adverb, from
Jerome's Vulgate /quoniam Deus prior dilexit nos/ to the Revised English Bible
"because He loved us first".
--
Revd Ben Crick, BA CF
<ben.crick@argonet.co.uk>
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