From: rlb4651@televar.com
Date: Sun Dec 03 1995 - 01:40:17 EST
Why are the Words "but by every word of God" omitted from the NIV version of
Luke 4:4 in the New Testament?
It is found in the King James,the Vulgate,and [(possibly) I cannot read
greek yet]
in the Byzantine texts (see below).
Luke 4:4 ----- VULGATE:
et respondit ad illum Iesus scriptum est quia non in pane solo vivet homo
sed in omni verbo Dei
Luke 4:4 ------ BYZANTINE:
KAI APEKRIQH IHSOUS PROS AUTON LEGWN GEGRAPTAI OTI OUK EP ARTW MONW ZHSETAI
[O] ANQRWPOS ALL EPI PANTI RHMATI QEOU
Does the Codex Sinaiticus omit the phrase "but by every word of God" in Luke
4:4?
Do the Alexandrian texts omit this phrase while the Greek Orthodox texts
include it?
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