From: Bruce Terry (terry@bible.acu.edu)
Date: Tue Jan 23 1996 - 14:55:21 EST
On Tue, 23 Jan 1996, Rick Strelan wrote:
>Would anyone care to answer a basic question: why do verb tenses change so
>easily in a narrative? For example (among many) in the parable of Matt
>13:24-30, the servants and the master have a conversation which is
>introduced by verbs in the aorist (eipon and ephe, vv27-28) but then the
>conversation continues introduced by verbns of speaking in the present
>tense (legousin and phesi), Is the present tense here meant to imply an
>on-going or repeated conversation,a stance being taken?
It is possible that the switch to present tense in such a case is a kind of
refresh operation--to remind the reader/listener that the narrative is still
in a quotation by one of the characters. This would be in distinction to a
verb used to introduce the beginning of a quotation. If my memory serves me
right, the imperfect is also used in this way in certain places in Mark.
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Bruce Terry E-MAIL: terry@bible.acu.edu
Box 8426, ACU Station Phone: 915/674-3759
Abilene, Texas 79699 Fax: 915/674-3769
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