From: Wes Williams (WesWilliams@usa.net)
Date: Tue Jan 13 1998 - 20:34:27 EST
I have an assignment to translate the book of Judges (LXX), in which I
find the aorist with a temporal clause frequently used. For example:
Judges 1:21
KAI KATWKHSEN hO IEBOUSAOS META TWN hUIWN BENIAMIN EN IEROUSALHM hEWS
THS hEMERAS TAUTHS
"and the Jebusite dwelt [have dwelt? have been dwelling?] ... in
Jerusalem until this day."
Smyth, "Greek Grammar," says on point 1941 under "Aorist for Perfect:"
"The aorist may be translated by the perfect when the perfect has the
force of a present (1946, 1947): EKTHSAMHN I have acquired (KETKHMAI I
possess), EQAUMASA I have wondered (TEQAUMAKA I admire). Thus, EKTHSO
AUTOS TA PER AUTOS EKTHSAO Keep thyself what thyself has gained.
Incorporating verbal aspect, one might say that the writer sees the
entire "dwelling" as a single event. Still, "dwelt" (Brenton's) is
awkward in English. Any objections to translating the above as an
English perfect? Does this not also echo John 7:48 EPISTEUSEN "have
believed" as a similar construction?
Thanks,
Wes Williams
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