From: Jim West (jwest@Highland.Net)
Date: Sat Jul 04 1998 - 10:55:55 EDT
At 09:06 AM 7/4/98 -0400, you wrote:
>
>It is interesting that the Hebrew word is just as ambigious. It this true for
>Aramaic? For Latin? What did Jerome do here? What did Luther do? In what
>language were the translators first forced to loose the ambiguity? Is there a
>history to this?
>
Luther- "Der Wind blaest, wo er will, und du hoerst sein Sausen wohl..."
French- "Le vent souffle ou il veut, et tu en entends le bruit..."
Vulgate- "Spiritus, ubi vult, spirat, et vocem eius audis..."
Italian- "Il vento soffia dove vuole: uno lo sente, ma non puo dire da dove
viene..."
Danish- "Vinden blaeser. hvorhen den vil, og du hoerer den suse, men du ved
ikke, hvor den kommer fra..."
Hebrew- "ha ruach nosheveth hecan shehi' rotsah weeth qolah 'atah shomea'..."
Several of these version note the ambiguity and offer the appropriate
variant. As you can see, most translate with "wind" rather than "spirit".
The vulgate, as well as the Hebrew, retain the ambiguity.
But the French, German, Italian and Danish all offer "wind".
Best,
Jim
+++++++++++++++++++++++++++++
Jim West, ThD
Pastor, Petros Baptist Church
Adjunct Professor of Bible,
Quartz Hill School of Theology
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