From: WmHBoyd@aol.com
Date: Sat Jul 04 1998 - 09:06:11 EDT
In a message dated 98-07-04 08:48:07 EDT, you write:
<< This ambiguity arises because pneuma means both wind and spirit... John,
in my opinion, intends the ambiguity to remain. >>
Thanks Jim. I am getting used to John's ambiguity. But in this instance, I
am looking for something in the text or context to suggest a preference for
"wind." The only thing I can come up with is "you can hear the sound of IT."
"IT" being neuter. There may be some aversion to refering to the Spirit as
"IT." But that seems to be reading too much in "IT." Since they have been
talking about "Spirit" then "Spirit" seems prefered here. It is the weight of
so many translations that used "wind" that causes me to hesitate.
It is interesting that the Hebrew word is just as ambigious. It this true for
Aramaic? For Latin? What did Jerome do here? What did Luther do? In what
language were the translators first forced to loose the ambiguity? Is there a
history to this?
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