Re: The Adverbial EUQUS in Mark 1:21

From: GregStffrd@aol.com
Date: Wed Sep 02 1998 - 00:55:00 EDT


In a message dated 9/1/98 9:23:16 PM Pacific Daylight Time,
spiffy@learningstar.com writes:

<<
 That is a good question. Maybe the NIV translation committe thought that it
 was unnecessary to include a translation of EUQUS in some contexts. I don't
 think they had any particular doctrine in mind when they omitted it though.
>>

Kyle, we have a problem: Where did I say anything about the NIV ignoring EUQUS
in this text for "doctrinal reasons"? How did this enter into a discussion
that I initiated to get us *off* doctrinally motivated topics? In fact, I
arranged my post so that no misunderstanding would result. But, it did.

If you want to contribute to this list, please focus on the grammatical
issues, especially when the topic is not very inflammatory. Doctrine has its
place, but you making it a priority on a list where it is not a priority.

Greg Stafford

 

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