From: Stevens, Charles C (Charles.Stevens@unisys.com)
Date: Thu Sep 10 1998 - 17:33:05 EDT
The word in context is CARIS . According to my trusty ancient
BibleWorks software, there are 156 instances of this word in its various
forms in the NT. Of these, the KJV renders 130 of them "grace". I'd
say the question is not so much "why translate it 'grace' here" as it is
"why do most versions *not* use the usual gloss for CARIS here?".
-Chuck Stevens [SMTP: Charles.Stevens@unisys.com]
> ----------
> From: thmann@juno.com[SMTP:thmann@juno.com]
> Sent: Thursday, September 10, 1998 11:45 AM
> To: Biblical Greek
> Cc: greekex@usa.net
> Subject: 1 Peter 2:19
>
> Hi All:
>
> I have a NT that translates 1 Pet. 2:19 as follows: "For this is
> grace,
> if anyone, because of a consciousness of God, bears sorrows by
> suffering
> unjustly." Other translations have "...this is thankworthy," or "this
> is
> commendable." Is there any justification for "this is grace"? Many
> thanks.
>
> Best in Christ,
>
> Theodore "Ted" H. Mann
> thmann@juno.com
>
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