From: Cameron VanEpps (fish__44@excite.com)
Date: Tue Jul 13 1999 - 19:39:42 EDT
> Subject: EN XRISTWi IHSOU-Phil. 4:7
> From: Edgar Foster <questioning1@yahoo.com>
> Date: Mon, 12 Jul 1999 08:51:17 -0700 (PDT)
> X-Message-Number: 9
>
> Dear Carl, Carlton, and Jim,
>
> Thanks for your help with the "peace of God" phrase in Phil. 4:7. I
> have one more question related to this passage. Could EN XRISTWi IHSOU
> denote the means by which God gives His peace? Is it possible to
> understand this clause as "by Christ Jesus" or "by means of Christ
> Jesus"?
>
> Regards,
>
> Edgar
I too am working in a similar area and would like to get the opinion of some
big-greeks concerning their thoughts on the subjective genetive. More
specifically I am working through Gal 2:15-21 and have decided to translate
v. 16b DIA PISTEWS IHSOU XRISTOU as "through the faith[fulness] of Jesus
Christ." This is in accordance with EK ERGWN NOMOU; "by the works of the
law" also in v. 16 and the fact that in v. 20 Paul uses the somewhat odd
construction: EN PISTEI ZW THi TOU hUIOU TOU QEOU; "by faith in the son of
God." Here we have the instrumental dative EN, and instead of the genitive
this time Paul uses the dative article THi. Why is this? and does this help
strengthen the argument for the other uses as functioning as subjective
genitives?
May God Bless,
Cameron
ixthus@az.com
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