From: Carl W. Conrad (cwconrad@artsci.wustl.edu)
Date: Thu Oct 07 1999 - 13:00:08 EDT
At 12:15 PM -0500 10/7/99, Dave Scarpino wrote:
>When comparing the KJV and NIV in Matt 5:44 there is such a differance in
>the number of words used. I understand the differance between older and
>newer ms, but can someone tell me where I can see these ms's and compare
>for myself.
I think there is a misunderstanding here; you're talking about translations
when you speak of the KJV and the NIV; it's almost impossible to do any
satisfactory translation of a Greek passage that's more than a noun phrase
into English that doesn't have several more or several fewer (more likely
more) words than the English, and it's not at all unthinkable that two
accurate translations of the same Greek text could differ considerably in a
word-count. I recall seeing somewhere a demonstration that a translation of
a difficult Pauline text with a lot of theoligical implications going into
a relatively small number of English words of French or Latin derivation
but into a much larger number of words of Anglo-Saxon derivation. I
honestly think that to talk about the word-count in a translation and the
word-count in a Greek manuscript is to talk about apples and
oranges--unless I'm altogether misunderstanding the question being raised
here.
Carl W. Conrad
Department of Classics/Washington University
One Brookings Drive/St. Louis, MO, USA 63130/(314) 935-4018
Home: 7222 Colgate Ave./St. Louis, MO 63130/(314) 726-5649
cwconrad@artsci.wustl.edu
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