From: dixonps@juno.com
Date: Sat Dec 18 1999 - 19:30:49 EST
On Sat, 18 Dec 1999 13:41:39 -0800 "clayton stirling bartholomew"
<c.s.bartholomew@worldnet.att.net> writes:
>
> Paul,
>
> Related to your question a particularly curious set of texts are
> Matt. 10:28 and Matt. 10:39.
>
> A similar but distinct sort of problem crops up with PNEUMA. Take a
> look at John 3:6-8
That the same word can mean and often does mean different things in the
same immediate context is an interesting thought. The first passage
cited,
however, is really the same as the Mk 8 passage, isn't it? The John 3
passage,
however, is a good example. As you say, the author may use such a device
merely as a play on words. Those given to puns might find this
especially
meaningful.
Yet, aren't such occurrences normally fairly obvious? Is this the case
in
Mk 8?
Paul Dixon
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