Re: Pronouns in John 1:1 and 1 John 1-4

From: Numberup@worldnet.att.net
Date: Wed Dec 22 1999 - 18:06:49 EST

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Well, I don't want to get theological about what John says at 1:14, but I would have
to say that I fall into the camp of those who think it definitely personalizes the
LOGOS.

Solomon Landers
Memra Institute for Biblical Research
http://www.memrain.org

Steven Craig Miller wrote:
<....The difference of interpretations of John 1:14 is rooted in the fact that some
take God's LOGOS as an individual, while others (such as myself) take God's LOGOS in
the Johannine prologue as an instrumental force.>

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Next message: Bret Hicks: "John 13:34 - A hINA Clause with the force of an imperative?"
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