From: KJohn36574@aol.com
Date: Sun Dec 26 1999 - 19:01:36 EST
Interpretation of the Hebrew Tanakh vs the Greek LXX has little to do with
the different translations of Gen. 1:1 as the Hebrew has been translated both
ways as Steve has correctly pointed out, by Hebrew scholars.
Steven is possibly working from the notion of the LXX influence on
translating the Hebrew rendering of Gen. 1:1 into English, although I'm not
convinced all translators who use, "In the beginning" are necessarily doing
it only through consideration of the LXX and its influence on English bible
format and translation.
What I am saying has alot more going for it than the "timing" of the creation
of the earth. It has to do with the facts that John quotes the OT much more
than any synoptic writer, and was one of the Sons of Thunder, who suggested
the Lord call down fire on the unbelieving Samaritans. He was a radical
Palistinian Jew who was a strict monotheist. I just don't believe, even as a
Hellenistic Jew, he thought as much about saving Greek philosophers as Jewish
unbelievers in Ephesus, who were everywhere their. But these are authorship
and background issues that go even beyond the background of the use of
vocabulary in a portion of Scripture.
Lets remember Paul was Saul of Tarsus and steeped in Greek philosophy, but
spent little time discussion doctrine along the lines of Grecian thought even
when writing to Greeks in the Church. Christ came first to the lost sheep of
Israel, and so did Paul and the other Apostles.
The Jerusalem Church has much more to say on Christian beginnings/thought
than the Church in Rome or Athens.
But this is history and not grammar studies I'm talking about. But then
again, who can study vocabulary usage fully without knowledge of
historical/cultural backgrounds of that language's usage and author? How and
why should one feel he/she must do that?
Ken Johnson
Elk Grove, CA
KJohn36574@aol.com
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