From: Ilvgrammta@aol.com
Date: Thu Feb 24 2000 - 10:35:15 EST
Dear B-Greekers,
Nigel Turner, Richard A. Young, Winer, and others say that the demonstrative
pronoun hOUTOS is employed in the NT to specify something nearby. Nearness is
not necessarily "the noun which is nearest," but "the noun which is most
vividly in the writer's mind" (Turner 1963:44).
This principle can be clearly illustrated by such passages as 1 John 2:22; 2
John 7. 1 John 5:20 is of course debatable and I do not want to get into that
controversial matter right now. Instead my concern is with Matt. 7:12. I
wonder, how is hOUTOS employed in this Matthean passage? It does not appear
to be analagous to John's use of hOUTOS in his first Epistle. H.D. Betz says
that hOUTOS in Matt. 7:12 is utilized in a substantive manner (BAGD 1a).
While BAGD does not place Matt. 7:12 in this category--Betz's suggestion
appears to be a good possibility.
I appreciate any help with this one,
Edgar Foster
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