From: Harold R. Holmyard III (hholmyard@ont.com)
Date: Fri Apr 14 2000 - 16:32:05 EDT
Dear Thomas,
Are you suggesting that in Phil 2:5, where it says that Jesus took the
form of a DOULOU, that Paul refers to His humanity? The verse goes on to
say, "becoming in the likeness of men,' and you compared Paul's designating
himself and Timothy in 1:1 as DOULOI of Christ. You seem to be suggesting
that man's place with respect to God is that of a DOULOS. Thus Christ by
becoming human took the form of a DOULOU.
A passage that could work with your general thinking is 1 Cor 7:22,
which states that "the one in the Lord called a DOULOS is a freedman
(APELEUQEROS) of Christ, and likewise the one called a freeman (ELEUQEROS)
is a DOULOS of Christ." There were no doubt tensions expressed by the word
DOULOS, and social realities that should not be ignored. However, even here
the language is somewhat metaphorical, especially when you consider Paul's
word in Gal 5:1:" For freedom (ELEUQERIAi) Christ has set us free; stand
and do not again be subject to a yoke of DOULEIAS." And verse 13 adds: "For
you were called to freedom (ELEUQERIAi)."
If you want to change the translation of Augustine's epigram to read
"whose slavery is perfect freedom," you would be well within NT language,
but the fact that it is freedom suggests that DOULOS had connotations that
the word "slave" does not convey. If DOULOS could mean two things, then
translators may need two words to render it. Something is lost, but
something is usually lost in translation.
Yours,
Harold Holmyard
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