From: Ken Flowers (kflowers@alum.mit.edu)
Date: Wed Apr 19 2000 - 17:26:22 EDT
I'm new to the list, so I hope this is cogent. I'm doing some research
into the role of the Holy Spirit in Revelation. I need to understand a
nuance of translation that I can't seem to get from Strongs or a Greek
parallel. King James and others translate Rev. 19:9 as "...he said..."
NIV and others translate the same as "...the angel said..." I can't see
any justification in the Greek I've seen for "the angel." The reason this
matters is that I'm looking at the possibility that the recurring unnamed
voice in Rev. is the voice of the Holy Spirit. The text of 19:5 seems to
support this, but if the speaker doesn't change to an angel at 19:9, then
the context of 19:10 is rather different if applied to the Spirit.
Thanks in advance for any insight,
Ken Flowers
Lexington MA
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