From: Theodore H Mann (thmann@juno.com)
Date: Thu Apr 20 2000 - 11:41:07 EDT
Michael:
Welcome to B-Greek. Not only does the list include wonderful scholars,
but they're all really nice people.
Regarding your question, I think your first choice is probably correct.
Since Aramaic was apparently the language Jesus spoke on a day-to-day
basis, He was probably quoting the Psalm in the tongue He normally used,
just as you and I (even if we knew Hebrew) would quote the same Hebrew
verse in English.
Best.
Ted
Dr. Theodore "Ted" H. Mann / thmann@juno.com
Fax and Voice Mail: 1-562-750-5242
http://www.homestead.com/ChristianResourcesLinks/index.html
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On Thu, 20 Apr 2000 11:03:33 -0400 Michael Ryle <mryle@mercator.com>
writes:
> Mark 15:34 reports that Jesus cried out in a loud voice: ELWI ELWI
> LEMA
> SABACQANI; The Jerome Commentary indicates that this is an Aramaic
> version
> of Psalm 22:2. For a long time I have have been curious about this
> passage.
> Why does Jesus quote the Hebrew scriptures in Aramaic? On the cross
> under
> the extreme stress of the moment did he spontaneously translate the
> psalm as
> he knew it into his own spoken language? Or was he quoting from an
> Aramaic
> source, a targum? If so, why would he quote from that instead of
> the Hebrew
> which he surely would have known? In the gospels when Jesus quotes
> scripture, except for this one case, I believe it's true that he
> always does
> so in Greek -- at least I can't think of another instance. Why is
> this case
> different and what does it mean? I'm curious to know if anyone else
> has
> wondered about this.
>
> I am a newcomer both to Biblical Greek and to this list and I would
> like to
> express my gratitude to Jonathan Robie and the other members of the
> list for
> the tremendous help you offer to someone like me who is struggling
> to learn
> how to read the New Testament in the eerily beautiful language in
> which it
> was written.
>
> Michael Ryle, North Eastham, MA
>
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