From: Jon Weatherly (jweather@yahoo.com)
Date: Tue Jun 26 2001 - 16:48:58 EDT
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<P> <B><I>Mark Wilson <emory2oo2@hotmail.com></I></B> wrote:
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<P><BR>My naive question:<BR><BR>Does not hAUTH itself imply a constrast? hH would have been sufficient to <BR>reference the APOGRAFH of the previous verse. In fact, I would have <BR>understood hH as demonstrative anyway. Why the hAUTH?<BR></P></BLOCKQUOTE>
<P>hAUTH can imply a contrast with another census, especially with PRWTH, and this is the very point that makes the interpretation "This census was <EM>before ..." </EM>an appealing one. The contrast is then with the well-known census of A.D. 6 that sparked riots leading to the deposition of Archelaeus. Otherwise, there's no point of contrast that I can see.</P>
<P>hAUTH could indicate simply "this census that I just mentioned," but then PRWTH seems to dangle with no contribution to the meaning of the sentence. In all other respects, the usual interpretation of this text seems satisfactory from a syntactical point of view, but I am forced to consider "before" to find a reasonable sense for PRWTH in light of hAUTH.</P>
<ADDRESS>Jon Weatherly</ADDRESS>
<ADDRESS>Cincinnati Bible College and Seminary</ADDRESS><p><br><hr size=1><b>Do You Yahoo!?</b><br>
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