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RE: Use of Comparative in 3John 4

At 3:13 PM -0400 6/10/97, Stevens, Charles C wrote:
>At 5:21AM, Carl W. Conrad wrote:
>
><<
>>Shakespeare has, among other double comparatives, "This was the most
>>unkindest cut of all." While held in contempt by prescriptive grammarians,
>>I think it is a not uncommon colloquialism in several languages; Greek is
>>not an exception--and I think there are others in the NT, pehaps also in
>>the LXX.
>>>
>
>Well, I'd call that a "double superlative" rather than a "double
>comparitive",

How about "more better"?

but since from what I read the superlative had virtually
>disappeared from Koine and the comparitive forms were making do for
>both, I guess the distinction isn't material in this forum!  ;-)
>
>My main question here is:  What should I presume the author of 3 John
>was trying to convey by his use of the reduplicated comparitive sense?
>Why would he use MEIZOTEROS instead of MEIZWN in this context, and what
>conclusions about his semantic intent can we draw from that usage?  For
>example, given the virtual disappearance of the superlative form from
>Koine, could/should we assume that the author was trying to convey the
>superlative by the reduplication of the comparitive sense?
>
>IOW, in what senses is MEIZOTEROS *NOT* a synonym for MEIZWN?

I really don't think you should be looking for any added sense to
MEIZOTEROS--I think it simply serves for MEIZWN. Another way to look at it
is as a standardization of the -TER- -TAT- forms to the originally
irregular comparative stem; it's a comparable standardization to the use of
A-endings with second-aorist stems (EIDA for EIDON, EIPA for EIPON, etc.).


Carl W. Conrad
Department of Classics/Washington University
One Brookings Drive/St. Louis, MO, USA 63130/(314) 935-4018
Summer: 1647 Grindstaff Road/Burnsville, NC 28714/(704) 675-4243
cwconrad@artsci.wustl.edu
WWW: http://www.artsci.wustl.edu/~cwconrad/