From: Carl W. Conrad (cwconrad@artsci.wustl.edu)
Date: Tue Jan 06 1998 - 06:59:14 EST
At 11:52 PM -0600 1/5/98, Jack Vogt wrote:
> I was wondering if someone could help me out in how to determine
>when the
>New Testament quotes the Old. I am writing a masters thesis on what the
>name is in Phil 2:9-11 that has been given to Jesus.
> I found an interesting statemant in D.C. Carson's Phillippians
>commentary
>"Basics for Believers," page 47. He first says that Paul has Isaiah 42:8 in
>mind and echoes the statemant "I am the Lord; that is my name!" In the
>next paragraph he says that Phil has qouted Isaiah 42:8. My question is how
>close does the wording have to be for it to be a quote and how distant can
>the form be before it should be called an echo?
> The other question that I have is whether Carson is right in his
>assessment that this is a quote or even an echo?
>Wishing you the best:
I'm rather leery of that suggestion (that it is definitely a citation). In
the Hebrew of Isaiah 42:8, at least, the name referred to is the proper
name YHWH, not the generic noun or title, ADONAI in Hebrew, KURIOS in
Greek. It's conceivable that it might be a citation from a Greek
translation of YHWH read as ADONAI and translated into Greek as KURIOS. But
in the NT KURIOS is most commonly used with a definite article and refers
to Jesus rather than to God "the Father."
I might add that this question, while appropriate in terms of whether the
Greek of Phil 2:9-11 and the Greek or Hebrew text of Isaiah 42:8, threatens
inherently to become a theological one. I would hope that can be avoided if
we will keep the discussion focused on linguistic possibilities.
Carl W. Conrad
Department of Classics/Washington University
One Brookings Drive/St. Louis, MO, USA 63130/(314) 935-4018
Home: 7222 Colgate Ave./St. Louis, MO 63130/(314) 726-5649
cwconrad@artsci.wustl.edu OR cconrad@yancey.main.nc.us
WWW: http://www.artsci.wustl.edu/~cwconrad/
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