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Re: 1 Jn 2:19 and universal negation - yes!
- To: Micheal Palmer <mwpalmer@earthlink.net>
- Subject: Re: 1 Jn 2:19 and universal negation - yes!
- From: Paul Dixon - Ladd Hill Bible Church <pauld@iclnet.org>
- Date: Mon, 9 Jun 1997 09:43:38 -0700 (PDT)
- cc: b-greek <b-greek@virginia.edu>
- In-Reply-To: <l03010d00afbfa5744302@[38.11.183.161]>
On Sun, 8 Jun 1997, Micheal Palmer wrote:
> At 6:51 PM -0700 6/5/97, Paul Dixon - Ladd Hill Bible Church wrote:
> >IAKWBW KAI TOIS PISTOIS:
> >
> >I agree with Jim that 1 Jn 2:19 is "conclusively" a universal negation,
> >but not because of the OU+VERB+PAS construction (which may yet support
> >this), but because of logical reasons.
> >
> >The last part of verse 19, "but that they may be manifest that OUK EISIV
> >PANTES EC HMWN, is the contrapositive of the immediately preceding
> >conditional, "if they had been of us, then they would have remained with
> >us." For those of you unfamiliar with this reasoning - the contrapostive
> >is the only universal negation implied by a conditional ("If A, then B"
> >implies the universal negation "if not B, then not A").
>
> Surely you don't mean that
>
> If Fido is a dog, then he is a canine
> [If A , then B]
>
> implies the universal negation
>
> If Fido is not a dog, then he is not a canine
> [If not A , then not B]
>
> do you?
Michael:
As they say at Hertz, "Not exactly." The contrapositive of
If Fido is a dog, then he is a canine
[If A , then B]
is
If Fido is not a canine, then he is not a dog.
[If not B , then not A].
Let's get this straight, please. :)
Now if this still does not make much sense to you (you're possibly
thinking this is a truism), then it is because you selected a
bi-conditional statement (what definitions are made of, i.e., dog being
defined as a canine). This still works, of course, but if you want to
really appreciate the goings-on, then just stick to a conditional, like:
If Fido is a dog, then he is an animal.
Therefore,
If Fido is not an animal, then he is not a dog.
Paul Dixon
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